SaintsFan wrote:
No it hasn't. All that has been pointed out to me is that you and a few others think it is bollox. Not the same thing at all.
As Mintball (and others) have pointed out, your claims are factually incorrect in a number of areas. And let me state again: your 'evidence' in no way shows that the church may legitimately claim to 'own' the concept of marriage. That it controlled marriage in this country up until a couple of hundred years ago no more gives it the right to claim ownership than the descendants of slave owners have the right to claim ownership of the descendants of slaves.
:lol:
I just love it when people know they are losing an argument and have to resort to personal insult.
I hate to burst your bubble, dear, but posting a link that's totally irrelevant to your claims does not count as 'winning' an argument.
I didn't imply the Old Testament was irrelevant to the discussion. What you infer is your own prerogative of course. That you have failed to understand the role of Jesus in being the fulfilment of the Jewish Law simply reveals your ignorance on this subject. So really I would stop now because to those who do have an understanding, you are looking silly.
Again, you're trying to muddy the waters with irrelevant twaddle. Your claim that the biblical definition of marriage is 'one man and one woman' is demonstrably false. Unless you choose to ignore the OT. Jesus' fulfilment of Jewish Law is irrelevant. If God intended that marriage should only include 'one man and one woman', why would he sanction so many marriages that broke this rule? Did he just change his mind?
What makes you and your fellow God-botherers look silly is your selective reading of the Bible. As soon as the inconsistencies in your arguments are pointed out, you all immediately resort to the 'you don't get it' line. It's transparent and it's ridiculous.
I understand 'the Word of God' in relation to the Biblical texts as meaning 'God inspired'. In other words, people were inspired by their interaction with their God to write what they wrote. What Pope Francis believes is only relevant to Catholics since the rest of the Christian world doesn't believe popes are valid. So far as Catholics are concerned, you would need to ask them whether they thought 'the Word of God' was a literal copying of God's speech.
Instead of blowing insults out of your backside you may think first whether really you should be writing about something you patently don't comprehend. Had you comprehended, you would have first considered which form of Christianity was under discussion: protestant or Roman Catholic, for example, as a starting point. You might then have phrased your question appropriately to elicit the kind of response you wanted.
No, no. It makes no difference whatsoever whether you believe that God dictated the Bible word for word, or that he 'inspired' the authors of the texts to write them on his behalf. There isn't a single Christian denomination that doesn't consider the Bible to be God's word, however the texts were produced. So if we accept that he as (at the very least) approved the contents of the Bible, what reason could we possibly offer for his sudden change of heart on what should constitute the nature of marriage?